Technically yes, because aryan refers to people of a certain region who came from certain proto languages and there were Africans there at the time iirc.
A Google definition: relating to or denoting peoples speaking Indo-European (or specifically Indo-Iranian) languages, or ancient peoples thought to have spoken Proto-Indo-European, the hypothetical language from which Indo-European languages are believed to derive.
From a Google search:
The "Aryans," referring to the Indo-Aryan peoples, are believed to have originated in Central Asia, specifically the Eurasian Steppe, and migrated to the Indian subcontinent, settling in the Indus Valley and Ganges Plain around 1800-1500 BCE.
From another search:
While the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) and the Ganges Plain were not solely populated by people of African descent, there's evidence suggesting interactions and potential migrations from Africa, with some scholars even suggesting a Dravidian connection to the IVC.